You misunderstand entirely the meaning of the word "genocide."
Here is the official definition:
any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
– Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, Article II
Now the phrase "intent to destroy" is what you're taking issue with. Thus far, the majority interpretation of this phrase by international courts has determined that it refers to
the intended physical-biological destruction of the protected group. Your interpretation, that making their life intolerable is the equivalent of destruction is not supported. Not only that, but you've provided no evidence that Israel has even been attempting to purposefully make Palestinian life intolerable or that it is for the express purpose of trying to destroy them. OK, you don't care what the Israeli politicians say about the matter. But you should. Genocide has always been supported and identified by speeches and open policies testifying to their intentions. Israel is a democracy. What you're suggesting is that a grand conspiracy exists in Israel, involving secret policies to destroy the Palestinian people. The fact that all of Israel's actions can be more rationally explained by the policies publicly described by its leaders doesn't seem to influence your opinion. (Which doesn't surprise me.) For some reason you are convinced of the validity of taking certain actions out of their historical context and ignoring the policies and events surrounding them so you can affix your own motives to them. To make your case for genocide you've had to redefine the term, ignore the facts and construct an entire conspiracy theory for which no evidence exists.
Whenever two countries go to war the intention is to destroy each other.No. You really think that? That's completely absurd. The intention is to win the war. Sometimes that means defending your nation's borders. Sometimes it means occupying or annexing another state. It rarely, if ever, means destroying the other state's population. I doubt you can even give me an example of a war where the ultimate goal was the total destruction of the enemy's state. (Except maybe for Arab attacks on Israel.) Not even the Nazis were interested in destroying the countries they fought.
Of course the Americans stopped killing the Japanese after their unconditional surrender. Just as I assume the Israelis will stop killing the Palestinians when they unconditionally surrender.Well, then that isn't genocide, is it? Were the Jews of Europe even fighting the Germans during the Holocaust? Were the Nazis interested in attaining a surrender from the Jews? Had the Jews as a group surrendered do you think the Nazis would have refrained from killing them? No. The same thing goes for the Armenian genocide or in Rwanda. Are you getting the distinction of "genocide" yet?
When you refer to the killing of innocent civilians as merely "collateral damage" you are close enough to condoning genocide. Um... no, collateral damage is totally unrelated to genocide. And using the term "collateral damage" to describe them is about as far away from "condoning genocide" as you can get. Look, war is an awful thing. And in war it is inevitable that people will die. Some of those people will be non-combatants, even in cases where every precaution is taken to avoid it. The difference between collateral damage and the war crime of killing civilians has everything to do with intent. In our western system of law we take the intent of the defendant into consideration. An accidental death is not considered as grave a crime as a purposeful, pre-meditated one.
Now as grave a crime as purposefully attacking civilians is, it is still a world away from genocide, which is not merely a war crime but a crime against humanity... among one of the worst crimes one could ever commit. I'll give you an example of the difference. Hamas uses suicide bombers to purposefully target Israeli civilians. This is a war crime. BUT these attacks are not part of a larger plan to eradicate the Jews. It is NOT genocide.
When you accuse me of condoning genocide because I recognize collateral damage as a sad fact of war, (and not necessarily a crime), you are not having the effect I think you want. Instead of demonstrating a greater commitment to humanity by refusing to differentiate between different circumstances of death you are really diminishing the true meaning of genocide. There is a reason that the world draws distinctions between collateral damage, war crimes and crimes against humanity. Thankfully crimes like genocide are relatively few and far between. When you start trying to assign the term to conflicts and circumstances that don't deserve it though you do it a grave disservice. Genocide is a term that we, as a society, reserve for the worst of all offenses. Using it callously diminishes its meaning.
After all how much "collateral damage" is acceptable? I have never known anyone to ask.Obviously I can't answer that question. Innocent civilians will die in every conflict; this is a fact of life. Sometimes their deaths are necessary to prevent the deaths of far greater amounts of people. Sometimes their deaths are tragically meaningless. But I can say one thing with relative certainty. When an army sets out with the mission to kill as many civilians as possible and is given the means to do so, then far greater numbers of civilians tend to end up dead than when an army sets out with specific instructions to avoid civilian deaths and is likewise given the means to comply.