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Violent crime began to decrease a year before either law was implemented. Even after they were implimented, there were millions of firearms still in circulation that were never recovered by police. Were criminals turning in guns preemptively, or throwing them away?
"Between 1986 and 1993, when the Brady law and the Assault Weapons Ban were finally passed, violent crime in Florida jumped 31%...."
This was a continuation of a long-running crime increase that started in the early 80's as Reagan's economic policies destroyed the US economy, driving more people to crime and drug dealing. The crime rate was climbing in Florida for years before 1986, yet somehow all crime increases after 1986 are the sole result of their CCW law?
"Australia and Texas each have about 20 million citizens. Australia has about 100 gun deaths a year, Texas has about 1,400....and according to gun loonies, it's Australia that has the gun problem."
I am not discussing Australia, or Europe, or any other nation: this is a smokescreen to obscure my underlying point. How can the crime rate decrease to it's lowest level in 30 yrs despite 30+ states having CCW laws? The 1994 AWB did almost nothing to eliminate handguns from circulation, despite handguns being the most commonly used firearm for crimes. How can you credit the massive crime rate declines to the AWB when it addressed maybe 5% of all guns used in crimes in America?
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