Question for anyone vaguely knowledgable about Europe in the 1500's

[Mass_Liberal]

This is for the sake of settling an argument. Ok, here's the question:

In the mid 16th century, in Europe, more specifically England, if a women was found to be adulterous, would either the husband or the state have the right to put her to death? If not, what was the punishment for adultery at this time.