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So their claim is as old as the Spanish claim. Everything that was Spanish, became Argentina's when they became independent. We were talking about the legitimacy of moving citizens to colonize a land to establish ownership. Since the land is claimed as part of Argentina it would not have been colonization to move settlers there, while the Falklands wasn't a part of Britain originally so moving British citizens there is colonization. When Argentina declared independence the islands were considered a part of their country. They established a settlement there, which was destroyed by the US, and then the Brits took over the islands.
There are uninhabited islands off the coast of the US, so any country can move their citizens there and claim it as their own?
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