Reply #34: yes, you're missing a lot

[TorchTheWitch]

The charges stem from consensual sex with stipulations that became non-consensual. In the case of both women one of the stipulations was that a condom be used (and that may have been the only stipulation in one or both cases).

This is what was reported during the court hearing in Westiminster as to the reasons for each specific sex charge allegation...

http://news.sky.com/skynews/Article/201009115849036
Gemma Lindfield, for the Swedish authorities, told the London court the first complainant, Miss A, said she was victim of "unlawful coercion" on the night of August 14 in Stockholm.

The court heard Assange is accused of using his body weight to hold her down in a sexual manner.

The second charge alleged Assange "sexually molested" Miss A by having sex with her without a condom when it was her "express wish" one should be used.

The third charge claimed Assange "deliberately molested" Miss A on August 18 "in a way designed to violate her sexual integrity".

The fourth charge accused Assange of having sex with a second woman, Miss W, on August 17 without a condom while she was asleep at her Stockholm home.


You can believe the allegations are true or not. But can we please now stop the claims that in the case of both women that sex was consensual from beginning to end and that Sweden has some crazy law that makes sex without a condom a rape offense?