THe bone of contrntion with respect to polls is the proportion of Democrats sampled versus Republicans. A reason for the wide disparity in RECENT polls is that many of the polls that showed Bush pulling way ahead sampled more Republicans than Democrats.
However, what proportion of Republicans vs Democrats did those same polls have a month ago or so when KERRY was ahead? Did those same polls have the same proportion of Dems and GOPs are the ones that showed bush way ahead, or did they have the same proportion as the ones that show a even race (e.g., Zogby)???
And if the proportion of Dems and GOP did change, is there some logical disconnect there?
I find it strange that the only news story that explained any of the reasoning behind these polls was the Guardian story from yesterday, the Guardian newspaper being a well respected, left leaning paper from England.
THe Guardian story on the polls was posted here yesterday (
http://www.democraticunderground.com/discuss/duboard.php?az=show_mesg&forum=102&topic_id=844319&mesg_id=844319 )
What the hell is going on here? This is indeed, as the Guardian pointed out, a real controversy, one that goes right to the heart of the matter? Why are the American newspapers NOT reporting more on the methodology of these polls? Why no detail on the reasoning? Why no analysis of the methodology from the past month or two, back when Kerry was in the lead?
I am starting to get the same feeling here about the methodology and the media reporting of it, as I did when I observed the peculiar behavior of the media following the Sept 9-11 bombings, and during the run up to the Iraq war. When I saw what was happening, I knew that Chomsky was right about the media. This poll methodology NON-story may provide another possible revelation about the media and its relation to political power over the populace.....