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veganlush

(2,049 posts)
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:39 PM Apr 2012

The presence of "A well regulated militia" in the wording of the Second Amendment

This discussion thread was locked as off-topic by seabeyond (a host of the General Discussion forum).

explains the absence of an acknowledgement of the "infringements" that nearly everyone realizes need to be in place. Thus I have cracked the code of the Second Amendment. In other words, if you wondered as I have why they said "shall not be infringed" knowing full well that infringements were obviously necessary, you need only realize the context, which is that they had already provided the qualifier which was "A well regulated militia". They didn't need to list the necessary infringements because inclusion in a well regulated militia would be predicated upon not having the challenges that would require those infringements. Those who are too young, or who have mental issues, or physical limitations or criminal history, etc, etc, would not make it into a well regulated militia.

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The presence of "A well regulated militia" in the wording of the Second Amendment (Original Post) veganlush Apr 2012 OP
Seems a lot of people consider the NRA "a well regulated militia" these days. polichick Apr 2012 #1
KNR joeybee12 Apr 2012 #2
Whatever, elleng Apr 2012 #3
The 5 right wingers did. Hoyt Apr 2012 #20
What difference does that make? It still has the same legal force. badtoworse Apr 2012 #24
The reason for this is because the USA did not have a standing army and Jefferson never Lint Head Apr 2012 #4
Jefferson didn't write the constitution, but you're generally correct. TheWraith Apr 2012 #7
The Connecticut Constitution is also very clear. NutmegYankee Apr 2012 #17
Elbridge Gerry, for whom the gerrymander was named: KamaAina Apr 2012 #18
No, that's not what it means. TheWraith Apr 2012 #5
Good point. CJCRANE Apr 2012 #6
4th amendment - NutmegYankee Apr 2012 #9
"secure in their persons"... CJCRANE Apr 2012 #13
Militia in the 18th century was the people. NutmegYankee Apr 2012 #15
That's fair enough CJCRANE Apr 2012 #16
Congress can call the militia for three purposes. NutmegYankee Apr 2012 #19
I've learned something new today. CJCRANE Apr 2012 #23
Yes, it is an individual right. TheWraith Apr 2012 #10
In Heller, the SCOTUS said that the 2nd Amendment protects an individual right badtoworse Apr 2012 #12
The Second Amendment came from the Virginia Declaration of Rights (1776) NutmegYankee Apr 2012 #8
That's much clearer. Thanks. freshwest Apr 2012 #11
The reason the Second is less specific is that it is an amendment to another document. NutmegYankee Apr 2012 #14
I wish we did not have a standing army, but the world has not been working that way. freshwest Apr 2012 #22
Miller (1930s SCOTUS decision) basically says Congress can regulate non-military guns pretty freely Recursion Apr 2012 #21
this belongs in the gun forum. nt seabeyond Apr 2012 #25

polichick

(37,626 posts)
1. Seems a lot of people consider the NRA "a well regulated militia" these days.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:42 PM
Apr 2012
 

joeybee12

(56,177 posts)
2. KNR
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:42 PM
Apr 2012

elleng

(141,926 posts)
3. Whatever,
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:44 PM
Apr 2012

the Supremes dispatched 'A well regulated militia' in Heller.

 

Hoyt

(54,770 posts)
20. The 5 right wingers did.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:15 PM
Apr 2012
 

badtoworse

(5,957 posts)
24. What difference does that make? It still has the same legal force.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:34 PM
Apr 2012

Lint Head

(15,064 posts)
4. The reason for this is because the USA did not have a standing army and Jefferson never
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:47 PM
Apr 2012

intended the nation to have one. They people would be called up in time of threats and defense needs.

TheWraith

(24,331 posts)
7. Jefferson didn't write the constitution, but you're generally correct.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:50 PM
Apr 2012

A standing army was impractical given the limitations, unaffordable, and raised questions about who controlled it.

The constitution of Pennsylvania is actually much better worded in this regard: there, it's explicitly stated that the right to bear arms is guaranteed for the purposes of defense of the self, and for the defense of the state.

NutmegYankee

(16,478 posts)
17. The Connecticut Constitution is also very clear.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:10 PM
Apr 2012

It says: Every citizen has a right to bear arms in defense of himself and the state.

 

KamaAina

(78,249 posts)
18. Elbridge Gerry, for whom the gerrymander was named:
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:12 PM
Apr 2012

"A standing army is like a standing member. It's an excellent assurance of domestic tranquility, but a dangerous temptation to foreign adventure."

TheWraith

(24,331 posts)
5. No, that's not what it means.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:48 PM
Apr 2012

Service in a militia has never been a precondition to firearms ownership; even if it were, the legal definition of "unorganized militia" in the US is every able bodied male age 17 to 45. There's no "code" involved.

CJCRANE

(18,184 posts)
6. Good point.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:50 PM
Apr 2012

It's also a "right of the people", i.e. in the plural, so not necessarily an individual right.

Other amendments make reference to individual rights with singular words such as "person", "the accused" etc.

NutmegYankee

(16,478 posts)
9. 4th amendment -
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:52 PM
Apr 2012

The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.


That has always been interpreted as an individual right.

CJCRANE

(18,184 posts)
13. "secure in their persons"...
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:58 PM
Apr 2012

"Persons" refers to people as individuals.

The 2nd Amendment doesn't say "No person shall be denied a gun" or "for the purpose of self defense". As it's written it refers to gun ownership in the context of militias. I don't mind either way, that's just what it seems to mean IMO.

NutmegYankee

(16,478 posts)
15. Militia in the 18th century was the people.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:04 PM
Apr 2012

It was persons living in towns or farming land. It was the citizens of the country.

CJCRANE

(18,184 posts)
16. That's fair enough
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:09 PM
Apr 2012

but I assume the use of a militia was for an outside threat from a large military force. This doesn't imply the use of arms for individuals to defend themselves against other individuals in the same community. Although of course if everyone is armed then that will be an obvious consequence.

NutmegYankee

(16,478 posts)
19. Congress can call the militia for three purposes.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:12 PM
Apr 2012

From Article I, Section 8 of US Constitution: To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;

CJCRANE

(18,184 posts)
23. I've learned something new today.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:32 PM
Apr 2012

RKBA *is* an individual right...but designed for use in collective action. The individual self defense argument seems to be an unintended byproduct of that right (or at least not the primary purpose).

TheWraith

(24,331 posts)
10. Yes, it is an individual right.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:54 PM
Apr 2012

And always has been. The "collective right" argument is recent historical revisionism: every piece of contemporary documentation shows no question that that was the intent. Also, you're factually wrong. The first and fourth amendments also refer to "the people," plural, when describing individual rights.

 

badtoworse

(5,957 posts)
12. In Heller, the SCOTUS said that the 2nd Amendment protects an individual right
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:56 PM
Apr 2012

NutmegYankee

(16,478 posts)
8. The Second Amendment came from the Virginia Declaration of Rights (1776)
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:51 PM
Apr 2012

XIII That a well regulated militia, composed of the body of the people, trained to arms, is the proper, natural, and safe defense of a free state; that standing armies, in time of peace, should be avoided as dangerous to liberty; and that, in all cases, the military should be under strict subordination to, and be governed by, the civil power.

freshwest

(53,661 posts)
11. That's much clearer. Thanks.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 02:54 PM
Apr 2012

NutmegYankee

(16,478 posts)
14. The reason the Second is less specific is that it is an amendment to another document.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:00 PM
Apr 2012

The Constitution contains the requirement for Civil control of the Military and also specifies this power to Congress: To raise and support Armies, but no Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term than two Years. Obviously the founders did not intend to have a standing army during peacetime, though changes in military tactics and technology would require it in later years.

freshwest

(53,661 posts)
22. I wish we did not have a standing army, but the world has not been working that way.
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:24 PM
Apr 2012

Investments are meant to be used, so they will be.


Recursion

(56,582 posts)
21. Miller (1930s SCOTUS decision) basically says Congress can regulate non-military guns pretty freely
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 03:15 PM
Apr 2012

In that case, SCOTUS said that a sawed-off shotgun doesn't have significant military applications (that's a questionable decision of fact, but let's grant it arguendo) so Congress could require a tax stamp on it.

But this reading also means that handguns would be easier to regulate than AK-47s, which is contrary to our current political expectations. FWIW, personally I think the 2nd amendment doesn't particularly apply to personal ownership of handguns (but does apply to personal ownership of M16s), but the 9th amendment does.

 

seabeyond

(110,159 posts)
25. this belongs in the gun forum. nt
Mon Apr 23, 2012, 04:03 PM
Apr 2012
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