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How come when one Bank wants to sell a mortgage to another Bank the Equity is of no (Original Post) Tuesday Afternoon Oct 2012 OP
The short version Po_d Mainiac Oct 2012 #1
The occasion of a "Putable" mortgage bond is so rare as to be inconsequential. n/t A HERETIC I AM Oct 2012 #4
The OP question was about mortgages, not bonds Po_d Mainiac Oct 2012 #11
Fair enough. n/t A HERETIC I AM Oct 2012 #12
the new bank doesn't want to lend more than the house is worth, now and in future Demeter Oct 2012 #2
banks don't have certain moral hazard issues that homeowners have. unblock Oct 2012 #3
Banks don't sell mortgages to each other, they sell bonds. A HERETIC I AM Oct 2012 #5
It all sounds like a crock of shit to me. I did business with a Local Bank and before my first Tuesday Afternoon Oct 2012 #6
Sounds as if Chase is acting as the mortgage servicer A HERETIC I AM Oct 2012 #7
so - basically they are trying to pass on the handling charges to me? Tuesday Afternoon Oct 2012 #8
Sounds like it. A HERETIC I AM Oct 2012 #9
thanks for the info and the advice - Tuesday Afternoon Oct 2012 #10

Po_d Mainiac

(4,183 posts)
11. The OP question was about mortgages, not bonds
Fri Oct 19, 2012, 09:17 PM
Oct 2012

Small institutions and Mortgage Banks do sell the paper and may or may not retain a serving agreement.

 

Demeter

(85,373 posts)
2. the new bank doesn't want to lend more than the house is worth, now and in future
Thu Oct 18, 2012, 04:51 PM
Oct 2012

No equity, no margin of error; if housing prices fall again (which they most likely will), the bank loses.

Banks that lose don't stay in business...unless they are too big to fail, of course, and have enough elected toadies in their pockets to bail them out.

Buying a mortgage, on the other hand, is just a piece of paper. And as Po says, the second bank can make the first bank take it back....

unblock

(52,195 posts)
3. banks don't have certain moral hazard issues that homeowners have.
Thu Oct 18, 2012, 04:58 PM
Oct 2012

for instance, as a homeowner, i may decide to walk away from the house if i owe too much on it. so a bank has to be wary of lending to me if i don't have enough equity.

but banks trading a mortgage to another bank don't have any of this issue with each other, so they are free to negotiate an appropriate price. a bank would never lend $200,000 for a $100,000 house, but if such a mortgage exists due to the housing crash, it still has some value, so banks are free to trade, albeit at a big discount. still, they may decide such a loan in some cases might be worth more than $100,000, say if they've done some analysis and determined that homeowners who have been underwater for more than two years yet failed to miss a payment are less than 50% likely to default.

they'd never ORIGINATE a loan for (much) more than the face amount, but they might buy it from another bank for more than the face amount because of the lack of moral hazard.

A HERETIC I AM

(24,365 posts)
5. Banks don't sell mortgages to each other, they sell bonds.
Thu Oct 18, 2012, 11:24 PM
Oct 2012

Once the loan for the house is originated, the money that is transferred comes from the creation of bonds and for the most part, the creators of those bonds tend to be other financial institutions. The banks sell the mortgages to these institutions, not the bank down the street.

It isn't as if a bank is selling the mortgage itself to another bank, rather bonds are sold and bought, on a regular basis, between parties basically the world over. Mortgage bonds are structured differently than a standard Treasury Bond or a Corporate or a Municipal. They represent payment streams from perhaps hundreds of individual homeowners, as opposed to a single entity. like your local city government or a company.

The answer to the second part of your question is because a new loan is being originated and the refinancing typically pays off the old note. This paying off satisfies a portion of the pool of bonds I mentioned above, referred to as a "Tranche". The reason equity is a huge deal is because it represents established value - money already in the bank, so to speak - that the loan originator can rely on as a back-stop should the new loan go into foreclosure. It is a guarantee that there is some value the originator can recover and pass on to the bond holders.

Consider this scenario;

A developer builds 100 homes in a new area and all of them sell within a month or so of each other. Those 100 homeowners have their choice of various banks and other institutions to provide the original mortgage, but the banks themselves are generally using a small handful of other institution to actually supply the money that goes to buy those houses - institutions like Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, etc. Those companies purchase the loan from the banks and essentially, immediately create and sell bonds. the proceeds from those bond sales is the actual money used to pay the homebuilder, who has to recoup the money he has already paid to the folks that actually put the houses up - carpenters, bricklayers, etc.

Now lets say that all 100 of those loans are 30 year notes. The fact is, the number of those 100 homeowners that will actually make payments on that same house or that same loan for 30 years is rather small. Some will pay off early because they refinanced. Some will pay off early because they sell and move away, some will go all the way to 25 years but pay off early. Historically, only a small number of those 100 will pay for the full 30 year term.

Each payment made on each of those mortgages goes to paying both interest and principal on the BONDS. The original bank rarely if ever holds that note for 30 years. They got the money from the likes of the Fannies and Freddies of the world and that is who ends up getting the monthly loan payments. Fannie and Freddie pass it on to the bond holders, be it a pension fund, a Mutual Fund, a foreign government or bank, or your Aunt Millie.

From Demeter's (one of DU's most prolific posters in the Economics forum and a notorious "perma-bear&quot said in her post above;

And as Po says, the second bank can make the first bank take it back....


Bullshit. No they can't. Bank one sold a BOND, not a mortgage and bank two bought a security that RARELY of ever has a "Put" option or the ability written into the originating documents of the bond that allow the holder to force the issuer to redeem early. It doesn't happen that way.

She also said;
No equity, no margin of error; if housing prices fall again (which they most likely will), the bank loses.


Nonsense. The bank has passed the risk off to the the pool of bonds. Her statement about housing prices falling again is typical of this poster, but based on nothing more than her own distaste for the financial industry as a whole and is completely speculative. When? When will housing prices fall again? Next week? in 5 years? 20? She doesn't know. No one does. The housing bubble of a few years ago was a once in a century aberration. As is stated in the Investopedia link I placed below, "An MBS is a way for a smaller regional bank to lend mortgages to its customers without having to worry about whether the customers have the assets to cover the loan. Instead, the bank acts as a middleman between the home buyer and the investment markets."

Read more: http://www.investopedia.com/terms/m/mbs.asp#ixzz29iAd9Y2f


From Unblocks post above;
for instance, as a homeowner, i may decide to walk away from the house if i owe too much on it. so a bank has to be wary of lending to me if i don't have enough equity


That and whether or not you have established yourself as a reasonable credit risk.

But then there's this;
but banks trading a mortgage to another bank don't have any of this issue with each other, so they are free to negotiate an appropriate price. a bank would never lend $200,000 for a $100,000 house, but if such a mortgage exists due to the housing crash, it still has some value, so banks are free to trade, albeit at a big discount.


More bullshit because it doesn't happen. The "appropriate price" isn't negotiated in the way this poster is suggesting. Since it isn't a single loan being traded, but rather bonds, the price is set via a bidding process that has to reference other bidding processes on similar securities that are happening all the time during the trading day. Bonds trade "Over the counter" and one bank isn't going to be able to sell these securities for dramatically more or less than they are trading elsewhere.

still, they may decide such a loan in some cases might be worth more than $100,000, say if they've done some analysis and determined that homeowners who have been underwater for more than two years yet failed to miss a payment are less than 50% likely to default.


Again, more bullshit, as this is not at all how mortgage bonds are structured. The consideration that some may be "less than 50% likely to default" is already been taken and is worked into the basic structure of a pool of mortgage backed bonds.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mortgage-backed_security

http://www.investopedia.com/terms/m/mbs.asp#axzz29i43vGlw

Edited previously for spelling.

But I want to add this;

For decades American homeowners as a group were considered by the worldwide bond markets as an EXTREMELY good risk because they could be counted on to reliably pay their monthly mortgage payments. That is why American originated mortgage backed securities were seen as so desirable the world over, tantamount to Treasury Securities themselves. In fact, they didn't even have a traditional "AAA" type rating. They were rated "Agency" which was comparable to a ten-year Treasury security. The bursting of the housing bubble had a dramatic effect on this trust. In the old days, the idea of simply "walking away" from a mortgage obligation was unheard of. The fact that it has become more common is not at all a good thing. Having said all that, it needs to be remembered that the overwhelming majority of Americans who have mortgages continue to make regular payments on them.

Tuesday Afternoon

(56,912 posts)
6. It all sounds like a crock of shit to me. I did business with a Local Bank and before my first
Fri Oct 19, 2012, 06:21 PM
Oct 2012

house payment was due they had already sold my paper. It ended up with Chase.

Now Chase is saying my escrow has gone up which is total fucking BULLSHIT.I know because I investigated. My Homeowner's actually went DOWN and my taxes have stayed the same. Chase is saying I owe them $30 more Dollars a month for the next 28 years. Chase can kiss my happy go to hell ass.

I can't refinance because I don't have enough equity???

FUCK 'EM.

Me and Chase are getting ready to GO A ROUND.

A HERETIC I AM

(24,365 posts)
9. Sounds like it.
Fri Oct 19, 2012, 08:49 PM
Oct 2012

Acting as a mortgage servicer allows them to shave something off your payments for fees.

They want higher fees. At least that's how it reads to me.

If not an attorney, then perhaps some sort of consumer advocate in your area may be able to help you. You need to find out if you can have another firm do the same thing for your mortgage. Whether or not this is possible I have NO idea, but Chase bought the right to perform this "service". Perhaps you can find some other firm that will buy it off them.

As you said, you did the research. It's my experience when dealing with large financial organizations that NOTHING beats thorough documentation, including not only recording phone calls (you need to let them know you are recording) but making written notes as the phone call goes along, preferably on your computer in such a way that you can time stamp it.

Keep copies of all correspondence. Write them letters on paper and mail them. Don't rely on Email, etc. etc.

I'm sure I am telling you things you already know. It sucks that this sort of thing happens to ANYONE.

You have my sympathy and I hope your fight against them is successful.

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