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Zynx

(21,328 posts)
3. That's semantics. Asking the Treasury Department to change it would result in it being changed.
Wed Jun 15, 2016, 11:20 PM
Jun 2016

Done and done.

PoliticAverse

(26,366 posts)
2. "Clinton said that if Congress did not act" - why wait for Congress if it can be done by executive
Wed Jun 15, 2016, 11:14 PM
Jun 2016

action? If it can be done by executive action why not issue that order on Day 1?

JoePhilly

(27,787 posts)
8. DADT ... DOMA ... there are 2 reasons.
Wed Jun 15, 2016, 11:27 PM
Jun 2016

Executive orders are (a) temporary, and (b) they let Congress off the hook.

Obama showed that.

PoliticAverse

(26,366 posts)
9. Obama wanted the Supreme Court to make a finding on the law that Congress passed
Wed Jun 15, 2016, 11:33 PM
Jun 2016

already. Issuing an executive order would have interfered with the process.


JoePhilly

(27,787 posts)
10. Exactly correct ... well sort of ...
Wed Jun 15, 2016, 11:39 PM
Jun 2016

For DOMA the courts ended it with Obama's help (his administration declined to defend it) ... for DADT, it was a combination ... Obama obtained an agreement with Congress on some basic conditions for full repeal, and at the same time, the courts also agreed with repeal.

Bottom line, as you note ... executive action would have interfered with the process in both cases.

Which is why any executive action needs to be considered before used.

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