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drray23

(8,568 posts)

5. because there were sporadic cases of voter fraud.

Reply to PaulRevere08 (Original post)

Wed Nov 25, 2020, 01:56 PM

Nov 2020

For example in PA, they found two cases of republicans trying to vote twice. In every election you will find a few isolated cases. Its not widespread so it wont change the results.
Saying there was zero fraud would be inacurate.

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Why does the MSM continue to use the term "no evidence of wide-spread voter fraud"? [View all] PaulRevere08 Nov 2020 OP

Cause the M$M f***ing sucks ... mr_lebowski Nov 2020 #1

I find it acceptable... There are bigger things to get all stirred up about. secondwind Nov 2020 #2

Yeah, just "no voter fraud" would do it. johnp3907 Nov 2020 #3

Lawyers. meadowlander Nov 2020 #4

because there were sporadic cases of voter fraud. drray23 Nov 2020 #5

Agree DrToast Nov 2020 #6

Exactly! SharonAnn Nov 2020 #7

Fair enough. I would think that .000000287 would be close enough to zero PaulRevere08 Nov 2020 #14

Exactly, there will always be people doing stupid crap. joshcryer Nov 2020 #16

Because cut and paste phrasing is easier and faster than for ng up with your own words. tblue37 Nov 2020 #8

Correct Answer: "No Evidence" is a Legal Term Entitling Party to Summary Judgment Stallion Nov 2020 #9

No, I'm sure there is some voter fraud. KWR65 Nov 2020 #10

The "MSM" aren't dumb enough to make a binary, blanket statement like maxsolomon Nov 2020 #11

Suppose same reason they didn't say there was no evidence of rigged election in 2016, Hoyt Nov 2020 #12

Landslide Lyndon Stallion Nov 2020 #13

K&R, nearly 160 million people voted. That's bigger than most countries whole populations of course uponit7771 Nov 2020 #15