A very serious question for the men here at DU:

[AnotherMcIntosh]

62. In 1790, New Jersey granted the vote to "all free inhabitants," including women.

Before then, in 1652, the Society of Friends (also known as "Quakers" by outsiders) was established. One of their major contributions was the promotion of the democratic participation of all adults, both men and women. Their descendants, after the United States was formed, continued to be at the forefront of the suffrage movements. They also participated in the anti-slavery movements, assisted run-away slaves while being involved with the underground railroad, and treated former slaves with respect whether they were male or female. Susan B. Anthony was a Friend or a Quaker.

Prior to 1920 in various Western states, both men and women were enfranchised to vote in Wyoming, Utah, Idaho, and Colorado (although Congress reacted to Utah women voters exercising their suffrage rights in favor of polygamy by disenfranchising them in 1887, but not women voters in other states, by passing the Edmunds–Tucker Act).

You say that your question is a serious one. May I suggest that you are starting with a false premise. If you are going to begin with a premise that "men in the United States legally and forcibly denied women ...," you might want to modify your words and your thinking to include the phrase "some men." If you willing to consider that aspect, you might also want to consider that "some women," like the pre-1887 Utah women voters who favored polygamy, have been enablers.