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exboyfil

(18,374 posts)
Wed Apr 28, 2021, 09:43 AM Apr 2021

My daughter received a summons for a rear end accident [View all]

An African American gentleman rear ended her when he failed to stop on an icy road. He has plead not guilty. I am having a tough time understanding why he is even being charged with anything. It was accident. Several other people had accidents on that road that weekend (not a great job by the city to treat it).

Does anybody else understand the point of criminal charges? He stayed and waited for the police. Information was exchanged. There is no deterrence value in pursuing it. He was not impaired, and it was not unreasonable under those conditions that he couldn't stopped.

She is reluctant to show up to testify (actually she is upset that the man was even charged with anything). It cost about $4K to fix her car. Her insurance company (my insurance company for 35 years and by father in laws insurance company for 50 years) probably ended up paying for it. That is the reason that I have given this company probably $100K over the years.

My wife had an accident several years ago in which she was at fault (failed to yield in a four way with no stop signs - yes no signs go figure). All she got was a citation - no court.

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Your article doesn't outline any details other than "he failed to stop"... brooklynite Apr 2021 #1
The document from the city attorney indicated exboyfil Apr 2021 #5
This message was self-deleted by its author forthemiddle Apr 2021 #28
In some jurisdictions, the hip thing is to require a court appearance for any auto collision. backscatter712 Apr 2021 #35
Why do you mention his race? obamanut2012 Apr 2021 #2
Because my white wife exboyfil Apr 2021 #6
But isn't there a reason for that? Dr. Strange Apr 2021 #12
The other driver is contesting the charge, and has pled not guilty. Calista241 Apr 2021 #15
She just told them she wasn't guilty of what was stated on the citation and they said OK? RegularJam Apr 2021 #19
I think he might be suggesting... ZenDem Apr 2021 #11
There is ALWAYS a violation of law in any accident. Calista241 Apr 2021 #21
If she received a subpoena, she may want to show up. Evergreen Emerald Apr 2021 #3
Yup, including an arrest warrant obamanut2012 Apr 2021 #4
If your insurance company had to pay for a rear ender, justhanginon Apr 2021 #7
this mopinko Apr 2021 #23
If there is an accident, there is always a violation. Calista241 Apr 2021 #8
Which is exactly why it's a bad idea to duck out of the summons. Dave Starsky Apr 2021 #25
There is probably a narrow list cases where there isn't fescuerescue Apr 2021 #33
If your insurance company had to pay for a rear ender, justhanginon Apr 2021 #9
Insurance companies sue to recover costs. davsand Apr 2021 #10
Requirement to maintain control of your vehicle MissMillie Apr 2021 #13
I Had a Friend RobinA Apr 2021 #29
What is the person charged with? I imagine it's careless driving. RegularJam Apr 2021 #14
all tickets are technically being charged with something dsc Apr 2021 #16
Your assumption that one insurance company paid for it is mistaken. FSogol Apr 2021 #17
highly highly highly dependent on the state this happened in fescuerescue Apr 2021 #32
The same thing happened to me last winter. world wide wally Apr 2021 #18
For every accident on public roads there will be a charge for the person at fault. Cuthbert Allgood Apr 2021 #20
Same thing happened with my daughter - Ms. Toad Apr 2021 #22
He was probably charged with failure to use due care, a moving violation. Maybe he is requesting SweetieD Apr 2021 #24
Why did her insurance pay? LisaL Apr 2021 #26
They said "probably" BradAllison Apr 2021 #27
Good insurers will pay upfront. fescuerescue Apr 2021 #31
failing to maintain assured clear distance is the crime. fescuerescue Apr 2021 #30
It looks like Zeitghost Apr 2021 #34
I had an accident a few years ago. Initech Apr 2021 #36
the man should use the caitlyn jenner defense nt msongs Apr 2021 #37
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