General Discussion
In reply to the discussion: FORBES: Romney Family Investment Ties To Voting Machine Company Causing Concern [View all]OkieGranny
(73 posts)Am not well-versed in campaign finance law but I do know the McCain-Feingold campaign finance reform of the early 2000s was butchered mercilessly in order to get something passed and left far too many gaping loopholes. Cannot say whether this situation constitutes any prosecutable offense. It should, IMO, but does it under current law?
As for intent to cause fraud, well, intent is difficult to prove. Actual fraud? You can't prosecute a crime that hasn't happened yet (this year). Strict non-partisan oversight is the only way we can be reasonably assured these voting machines won't be rigged to throw elections this year, but it doesn't seem likely that will happen. Remember the guy from Diebold promising to deliver Ohio? Big stink, but nothing really came of it. Except for the exit polling being dropped because it didn't match the voting machines' numbers.
The question I had in mind when posting earlier was whether a partisan person or group should be allowed any ownership of voting machines. From what I've read, there is currently no specific law against that.
What I would really like to see is a law against any voting machines, period. But I don't suppose that's going to happen either.