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(28,367 posts)
4. Link here. It walk talked on the TV and Radio for a couple of years, esp. NJ1015.com
Sat Dec 11, 2021, 09:32 PM
Dec 2021


Here's one link. It was actually 10 years ago.


Just a snippet of the article

First, the commission selected the best way to pare 13 districts down to 12 by putting a Republican and a Democratic incumbent in the same district, rather than two incumbents of the same party, thereby letting voters in the general election decide which incumbent returns to Congress. Putting two incumbents from the same party in one district would force a primary contest, typically a low-turnout election involving only voters from one party, which certainly is not as fair.
With those sensible changes in district lines, most observers agree that the districts are even less competitive than those of 10 years ago. One party now dominates, so incumbents appear to be assured of little competition from a challenger. Therefore, there will be a limited amount of campaigning to connect with voters — but still lots of money being raised to fend off primary challengers. The bright side is that seniority in Congress rewards long-term incumbency with a leadership role.

This incumbent-safe arrangement means there is little potential for new people — specifically women — to run and be successful. Note that New Jersey has not had a woman in its congressional delegation since Marge Roukema, from Bergen County, retired in 2002.

Why isn't gerrymandering illegal [View all] Tribetime Dec 2021 OP
About 10 years ago, Dems & Reps in NJ got together and set up each district as safe zones. TheBlackAdder Dec 2021 #1
Link? zaj Dec 2021 #2
Link here. It walk talked on the TV and Radio for a couple of years, esp. NJ1015.com TheBlackAdder Dec 2021 #4
"Democrats" aren't a protected class, so they use "race" as a proxy. zaj Dec 2021 #3
Yeah, Oklahoma ymetca Dec 2021 #5
Scotus has ruled it is legal iemanja Dec 2021 #6
American supreme Court seems to error on the side of less democracy when it comes to voting uponit7771 Dec 2021 #7
Yes, and I'm afraid we'll see that confirmed iemanja Dec 2021 #8
You have to remember Zeitghost Dec 2021 #15
Yes, but what about explicitly anti-democratic and explicitly intended to favour one party? Alexander Of Assyria Dec 2021 #10
They have said that is okay iemanja Dec 2021 #13
Here is a news story about the ruling. iemanja Dec 2021 #17
Thank you. Well, that's just wrong thinking by the majority. Political thinking. Not their job. Alexander Of Assyria Dec 2021 #18
Define represented "fairly" brooklynite Dec 2021 #9
One person one vote, equal representation in legislative body based on population Alexander Of Assyria Dec 2021 #11
"In a logically geographic perimeter"....there's the rub brooklynite Dec 2021 #14
No, but nothing bans it either. So legislatures can do, no problem, including the federal level. Alexander Of Assyria Dec 2021 #19
It seems all my post oh nevermind I fixed it Tribetime Dec 2021 #28
Because both sides do it. Zeitghost Dec 2021 #12
The Voting Rights Act requires it to some extent MichMan Dec 2021 #16
Becuase the Founding Fathers decide it was OK. Jacson6 Dec 2021 #20
The "Founding Fathers" did not have a clue...says Stu Stuart G Dec 2021 #25
They also bought and sold humans. They also settled arguments by duel. Progressive Jones Dec 2021 #27
Chief Justice edhopper Dec 2021 #21
Elections and election laws are decided state by state. That is in the constitution. AJT Dec 2021 #22
Even if as others have noted it wasn't explicitly permitted... localroger Dec 2021 #23
+1000 smirkymonkey Dec 2021 #24
Be careful what you ask for thatdemguy Dec 2021 #26
It shouldn't favor one party or another every voter vote must be equally represented Tribetime Dec 2021 #29
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