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BlueCheeseAgain

(1,983 posts)
7. In those cases, they are charging the women for supposedly inducing the miscarriage.
Sun Jun 26, 2022, 07:08 PM
Jun 2022

In other words, because they caused an "abortion", not because they received one.

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that is already changing in some states AlexSFCA Jun 2022 #1
In those cases, they are charging the women for supposedly inducing the miscarriage. BlueCheeseAgain Jun 2022 #7
A TX DA DID charge a woman who presented post-miscarriage, though charges eventually dropped hlthe2b Jun 2022 #2
Sorry about getting you temporarily infuriated. BlueCheeseAgain Jun 2022 #9
Difference without distinction. Still prosecuting the woman, the "victim." hlthe2b Jun 2022 #10
Almost entirely 2 ... its a political calculation that it's easier to go after providers Hugh_Lebowski Jun 2022 #3
Don't give them any ideas emulatorloo Jun 2022 #4
Sounds like a question from trump!!! texasfiddler Jun 2022 #5
IIRC, the piece of shit DID once admit in an interview Buns_of_Fire Jun 2022 #21
Some factions are pushing for just that. Charging both the person who provides the abortion WhiskeyGrinder Jun 2022 #6
If they did do that, what do you think the reaction would be? BlueCheeseAgain Jun 2022 #8
Some would, some could be talked into it, and some would believe it would never happen. WhiskeyGrinder Jun 2022 #11
Currently because women vote. Of course they've gone after women and will Hortensis Jun 2022 #12
IN, not IA jmowreader Jun 2022 #14
Whoops, unintended bad association with IA. To IN's credit, Hortensis Jun 2022 #20
And where do the fathers come into the equation? dutch777 Jun 2022 #13
It has only been 3 days since the decision MiniMe Jun 2022 #15
Give them time. It's coming. jmowreader Jun 2022 #16
Could be pure numbers FBaggins Jun 2022 #17
It is #2. David__77 Jun 2022 #18
Yes. Boomerproud Jun 2022 #23
They will start trying to charge women who go for out of state abortions. roamer65 Jun 2022 #19
I don't believe your premise to be accurate msfiddlestix Jun 2022 #22
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