Welcome to DU! The truly grassroots left-of-center political community where regular people, not algorithms, drive the discussions and set the standards. Join the community: Create a free account Support DU (and get rid of ads!): Become a Star Member Latest Breaking News Editorials & Other Articles General Discussion The DU Lounge All Forums Issue Forums Culture Forums Alliance Forums Region Forums Support Forums Help & Search

General Discussion

PoliticAverse

(26,366 posts)

1. Is it possible? Yes.

Reply to Incitatus (Original post)

Sun Nov 11, 2012, 03:36 AM

Nov 2012

Suppose for example there are 3 districts with identical sized voting populations of 100,000

In District 1 a Democrat runs unopposed
In District 2 and 3 there are both Democratic and Republican candidates.

Suppose on election day the vote breaks down like this:

District 1 Democrat 50,000 Republican -
District 2 Democrat 49,000 Republican 51,000
District 3 Democrat 48,000 Republican 52,000

The result would be 2 Republicans elected and 1 Democrat.
The total votes by party would be: Democratic: 147,000 Republican: 103,000

For some historical background on Congressional District manipulation see:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerrymandering

Edit history

Please sign in to view edit histories.

Recommendations

0 members have recommended this reply (displayed in chronological order):

3 replies

= new reply since forum marked as read

Highlight:

A question about votes for the house. [View all] Incitatus Nov 2012 OP

Is it possible? Yes. PoliticAverse Nov 2012 #1

See comment #2 for the answer and numbers :) n/t Tx4obama Nov 2012 #3

They said on TV earlier today that the vote totals for House Dems were more than for GOPers. Tx4obama Nov 2012 #2