Foreign kings' names

[muriel_volestrangler]

65. Not a Turk in sight in that chart

which rather seems to go against your personal hypothesis, doesn't it? And why should Scythians meeting Mongols in the Altai mountains only 2,500 years ago cause a Turkic word to turn up in all the Germanic languages a few thousand miles to the west? Or why would it even indicate that 'khan' comes from a still unidentified Sanskrit word? Scythians weren't Germanic; they weren't Indian. They're typically held to be associated with the Iranians (and that's where the language chart you accept puts them).

Calling the Scythians "some of the first Indo-Europeans" is ridiculous. The chart doesn't claim that; indeed, it shows only four languages coming from Scythian - of which only 1 is still alive - Ossetian. The Scythians seem to be a complete red herring. Your claim is that 'king' can be traced back from Germanic languages to the Turkic 'khan', and from there to Sanskrit - but you have not yet divulged the Sankrit word. So far, you've shown no evidence, just said "because Scythians".