Elected officials serving "in good faith"?

[MyshkinCommaPrince]

4. Is there a precedent?

Is there any precedent for this sort of thing, in representative government? If so, I wonder what the history of such efforts is. Or is this new? If this is a new thing, what sort of precedent is being set now? I feel like important aspects of the whole situation are being ignored, and I'm not quite sure how to try to research the matter.

One would assume that taking public offices under false pretenses would be illegal already, but apparently not. I suppose the argument could be made that the apparent subversion is just a tactical choice made in a given situation. It would be hard to prove intent to subvert. Hmm.