General Discussion
In reply to the discussion: Question for those callling the shutdown an act of sedition [View all]onenote
(46,137 posts)It is basic "how a bill becomes a law" stuff. In order for a bill to become a law, the exact same bill, in its entirety, has to be passed by both houses of Congress.
Neither house had passed any identical appropriations bills, so Congress had to proceed to keep the government funded via the continuing resolution route. The House started that process by passing a continuing resolution on September 20 that funded the government at the repubs desired level through December 15 AND defunded Obamacare. That bill went to the Senate, which stripped out the House text, replaced with identical text (thereby compromising by accepting the funding levels that the House wanted) and then made two changes to the House language: shortening the CR by a month (from December 15 to November 15) and stripping out the House language defunding the ACA. They sent that back to the House, which rejected it, not because the Senate hadn't compromised (which they had by accepting the House funding levels) but because the Senate hadn't accepted a portion of the original CR passed by the House that the House wanted -- namely the ACA defunding language.
Get it? The Senate has not passed the entirety of a CR sent to it by the House and the House has never passed the entirety of a CR sent to it by the Senate. Yes, the Senate compromised by accepting the funding levels proposed by the House, but the Senate, thank goodness, did not accept the House ACA defunding language. Thus, despite your apparent, and seemingly inexplicable confusion on the point, it is an unalterable fact that "The Senate did not pass a bill that had been passed by the House." And that is something to be eternally thankful for, because if you were right and the Senate had passed any of the CRs that the House has sent them, the president would have had to veto the measure because it would have fucked around with the ACA.