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In reply to the discussion: Constitutional horror: Clarence Thomas argues states can establish official religion [View all]Cerridwen
(13,262 posts)57. Here ya go. Direct link to .pdf of opinion. (edited for subject line)
link to Opinion: http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/13pdf/12-696_bpm1.pdf
[center]TOWN OF GREECE, NEW YORK, PETITIONER
v.
SUSAN GALLOWAY ET AL.
ON WRIT OF CERTIORARI TO THE UNITED STATES COURT OF
APPEALS FOR THE SECOND CIRCUIT[/center]
v.
SUSAN GALLOWAY ET AL.
ON WRIT OF CERTIORARI TO THE UNITED STATES COURT OF
APPEALS FOR THE SECOND CIRCUIT[/center]
thomas' opinion begins page 42
<minor snip>
As an initial matter, the Clause probably prohibits Congress from establishing a national religion. Cf. D Drakeman, Church, State, and Original Intent 260262 (2010). The text of the Clause also suggests that Congress could not interfere with state establishments, notwithstanding any argument that could be made based on Congress power under the Necessary and Proper Clause. Newdow, supra, at 50 (opinion of THOMAS, J.). The language of the First Amendment (Congress shall make no law) precisely tracked and inverted the exact wording of the Necessary and Proper Clause (Congress shall have power . . . to make all laws which shall be necessary and proper . . . ), which was the subject of fierce criticism by Anti-Federalists at the time of ratification. A. Amar, The
Bill of Rights 39 (1998) (hereinafter Amar); see also Natelson, The Framing and Adoption of the Necessary and Proper Clause, in The Origins of the Necessary and Proper Clause 84, 9496 (G. Lawson, G. Miller, R. Natelson, & G. Seidman eds. 2010) (summarizing Anti-Federalist claims that the Necessary and Proper Clause would aggrandize the powers of the Federal Government). That choice of languageCongress shall make no law effectively denied Congress any power to regulate state establishments.
<snip because formatting .pdf to text sucks. bolding added>
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Constitutional horror: Clarence Thomas argues states can establish official religion [View all]
KamaAina
May 2015
OP
No its not but but the precedent of application to the states is mostly settled.
yellowcanine
May 2015
#80
I do not think that is what the founders had in mind when they wrote Ammendment I
Stuart G
May 2015
#4
Correct! The Incorporation Clause of the 14th Amendment applied the Bill of Rights to.......
LongTomH
May 2015
#78
OMG! Fuck that shit! I'm not going to have some fairy tale forced on me by ANY government! WTF
ChisolmTrailDem
May 2015
#5
Notice that the article, from last year, does not quote Thomas or identify the decision
jberryhill
May 2015
#27
it was a poor article, about Town of Greece, NY v. Galloway 134 S. Ct. 1811 (2014)
steve2470
May 2015
#71
Thomas - do you understand that state religion was what most of our ancestors camne to this
jwirr
May 2015
#11
After the state religion would not allow them to practice their own religion. All over Europe they
jwirr
May 2015
#18
The early settlers all came on the same ships, lived in a certain area where they started their own
jwirr
May 2015
#81
The dictionary definition indicates the Church of England as an exampe. A church that by law is
jwirr
May 2015
#91
Makes about as much sense as saying the First Amendment doesn't apply to blasphemy...
Dr. Strange
May 2015
#15
It appears he would like to see Everson v. Board of Education of the Township of Ewing swept away.
Agnosticsherbet
May 2015
#59