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DanTex

(20,709 posts)
15. How am I "fudging"?
Mon Jun 1, 2015, 01:26 PM
Jun 2015

First, like I said, you're dwelling on pointless details. "Moving jobs" and "moving production" can mean any of a number of things, including Nike-style outsourcing to contractors. Since I'm the one who actually used the term, a good person to ask about what I meant by it would be.... me.

And, yes, it is quite irrelevant who owns the factory, at least from the point of view of the workers. The only thing that matters is where the work is being done. The ownership of the factory only changes who gets the profits. If you think some kind of law preventing Americans from owning factories in Vietnam would do anything to stop jobs from moving there, you will be sorely disappointed.

In fact, what you are saying is not just false, it is closer to the opposite of the truth than anything. When the US buys goods made in Vietnam, what ends up happening is that Vietnamese people end up owning American capital in return. So the end result of a trade deficit to Vietnam is a surplus of Vietnamese-owned capital in America, versus American-owned capital in Vietnam. The "freed up capital" you are talking about will be in America, not in Vietnam.

Where does this capital go? Mostly into the financial markets: stocks and bonds. Which means, that, yes ultimately it does end up going into other industries.

And your point is?

My point is that the fact that free trade produces losers is no more of an valid argument against free trade than it is against new technologies.
agreed. "Corporate Rights" agreement. also "Corporate Welfare" magical thyme Jun 2015 #1
It totally sucks Art_from_Ark Jun 2015 #3
The big problem with this article is that it picks bad examples: DanTex Jun 2015 #2
No, it is not. rogerashton Jun 2015 #8
First of all, no, those aren't examples of free movement of capital. DanTex Jun 2015 #9
You said rogerashton Jun 2015 #10
I said "Allowing American companies to move jobs/production". DanTex Jun 2015 #12
Keep fudging. rogerashton Jun 2015 #13
How am I "fudging"? DanTex Jun 2015 #15
In the theory of international trade, rogerashton Jun 2015 #18
Yes, that's the macroeconomic definition of capital, and while it is used that way in DanTex Jun 2015 #19
You are getting a little frantic, here. rogerashton Jun 2015 #23
Frantic, what? This doesn't need to get personal, does it? DanTex Jun 2015 #24
K&R 99Forever Jun 2015 #4
So you have read something that doesn't even exist yet? Seer? Cryptoad Jun 2015 #5
1. enough has been leaked for us to see it's no good. The ISDS chapter alone is enough. magical thyme Jun 2015 #6
80% of the GDP covered by the TPP is already covered by "free trade" agreements. jeff47 Jun 2015 #11
It's a transference of power from nation states to corporations. Dont call me Shirley Jun 2015 #7
Exactly, but those that worship money are blind to the harm it will do. Rex Jun 2015 #14
"Free trade" is actually privatize profits - socialize costs/losses... Dont call me Shirley Jun 2015 #20
Basically its the crowing of corporations d_legendary1 Jun 2015 #16
Only in the sense that the EU Charter and the US Constitution were 'free trade agreements'. pampango Jun 2015 #17
This works in the US because we Are ONE nation, tpp involves many sovereign nations with Dont call me Shirley Jun 2015 #21
The EU is composed of many nations but it was created along "FDR" principles - strong unions, pampango Jun 2015 #22
The EU generally lifted all boats. The TPP is created only to lift the yachts of the rich... Dont call me Shirley Jun 2015 #25
Do we export anything anymore? xfundy Jun 2015 #26
Bombs, guns, mortars, tanks, and factory equipment once used here Elwood P Dowd Jun 2015 #28
Accordling to Wikipedia the type is trade agreement Thinkingabout Jun 2015 #27
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