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bemildred

(90,061 posts)
16. Declined relative to WWI and WWII is a different thing than declined relative to say the 1980s.
Wed Dec 2, 2015, 08:14 AM
Dec 2015

Or the 1820s. The 1860s were pretty violent here.

So much depends in such conclusions on the metric selected and the period examined.

And anyway the Neolib dogma requires it, so it must be so, because "progress".

I want to add that slavery is a rather extreme form of inequality, so that does much to explain the extreme violence of the Civil War, and our racial inequalities explain the racial violence here very well too and our continuing state of misrule and misconduct in foreign affairs.

And I have been expecting another dose of that here since Raygun came in, because he was all about inequality, right from the start.

And I think we are about there now.

Divided and unequal societies tend to be more violent both internally (enforcement) and externally (displacement).

Latest Discussions»General Discussion»Economist Has Convincing ...»Reply #16