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dumbcat

(2,161 posts)
9. No, not by most definitions
Tue Dec 15, 2015, 09:59 PM
Dec 2015
Developed countries have post-industrial economies, meaning the service sector provides more wealth than the industrial sector. They are contrasted with developing countries, which are in the process of industrialization, or undeveloped countries, which are pre-industrial and almost entirely agrarian. According to the International Monetary Fund, advanced economies comprise 60.8% of global nominal GDP and 42.9% of global GDP (PPP) in 2014.[2] In 2014, the ten largest advanced economies by GDP in both nominal and PPP terms were Australia, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Spain, the United Kingdom, and the United States.[3]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Developed_country

See also:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_World_Factbook_list_of_developed_countries

http://listverse.com/2012/02/13/top-10-highly-developed-countries/

http://www.businessdictionary.com/definition/developed-countries.html

http://www.cfr.org/international-organizations-and-alliances/group-eight-g8-industrialized-nations/p10647

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