I have read the other comments and I am still not sure what is being asked. So, I am going to answer the best I know how. You know me well enough to steer me back if I am wondering in the wrong pasture.
What I seeing is a confusion of terms. Hetero-, homo-, and bi- are forms of sexuality. They are determined by the person's desire for the other, same, or both sexes. The key word is "desire". Is it possible someone who is asexual has sexual cravings? Sure. Sexual cravings aren't necessarily the same as "desire", it is more of a "biological need" than an "emotional want". I don't see "asexuality" as a true sexual orientation anymore than I see "atheism" as a religion. But, I understand why both are grouped with their various segments. Does that make sense? Therefore, based on my muddled understanding, if someone has sexual attractions, it will determine an orientation. If they have none, then the person is "asexual." Sexual orientation is made up of more than attraction and physical desire, which is why more people are now realizing they may have bisexual proclivities. The physical act may be nothing more than a biological need, an itch that needs scratching; nothing more.
I guess I would say the person is likely an anomaly and the situation is rare. There are certainly people who are defined as hetero-, homo-, bi-, sexual who aren't very interested in sex, but if they identify themselves with a sexual orientation, then they likely do have some type of range of being attracted to peoples, they may not act on it though.
Was I even close? Where should I post my vote.
(PS...sorry I never responded to your remarks in the other thread on bisexuality. I got distracted...no! not that way. 
)
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