General Discussion
In reply to the discussion: Top marginal income tax rate should be fifty percent [View all]hfojvt
(37,573 posts)so you don't have firsthand knowledge of pre-1986.
Neither do I, because IRS tax stats only go back to 1986.
I never quoted wikipedia either, only my own journal, sourced from IRS tax statistics.
I'd like to have stats going back to at least 1966, but I am not sure if I can dig them out of SAUS, or Saez and others who have done some work on past tax rates.
Even today we have tons of loopholes, like IRA deductions (mostly taken by the rich) (see the link here "About IRA deductions" http://journals.democraticunderground.com/hfojvt/169) and lower tax rates on capital gains and dividends (http://journals.democraticunderground.com/hfojvt/81), tax free municipal bonds, and so on.
My point about loopholes in the past is that they also had their limits. For example, suppose a person made $800,000 in 1975. At that point they were taking advantage of evey loophole they could. Thus, if they were to steal (er, earn?) another $200,000 that money would be taxed at the 70% marginal rate.
Thus, loopholes or no loopholes, the higher marginal tax rates sorta acted as an income cap, reducing inequality. And I still do not believe loopholes were much more prevalent then than they are today. If the act of 1986 closed loopholes that sure didn't result in higher taxes to the rich. Quite the opposite.