Did Trump violate the War Powers Act? [View all]
A lot of people here have pointed out that the President has the power to initiate military action without a Declaration of War as long as he reports back to Congress.
That is the effect of the precedent set by the inaction of congress but, in fact, the president may not have the necessary justification to bomb Syria under the law.
The War 15 USC §1541(c) clearly states;
The constitutional powers of the President as Commander-in-Chief to introduce United States Armed Forces into hostilities, or into situations where imminent involvement in hostilities is clearly indicated by the circumstances, are exercised only pursuant to (1) a declaration of war, (2) specific statutory authorization, or (3) a national emergency created by attack upon the United States, its territories or possessions, or its armed forces.
Congress has not declared War since 1941.
There is no statutory authorization to Bomb Syria that I am aware of. (Anybody? )
Syria has not attacked the US, its terrritories, possessions or its armed forces.
I believe this attack was a violation of the US Constitution and Federal Law. Can anyone offer me "statutory authorization" to justify it?
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