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In reply to the discussion: Matt Taibbi: From an Unlikely Source, a Serious Challenge to Wall Street [View all]drm604
(16,230 posts)23. That could actually be a problem for this.
If ownership of a mortgage can't be proven, then who do the local governments pay fair value to in order to seize the loans?
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Matt Taibbi: From an Unlikely Source, a Serious Challenge to Wall Street [View all]
marmar
Jul 2012
OP
Ha Ha HA! Taibbi making shit up again. His "serious challenge" does not have
banned from Kos
Jul 2012
#4
Yes, it does. It's called 'taking action' on behalf of the PEOPLE this time, rather than the
sabrina 1
Jul 2012
#9
Interesting, my girl-friend is having a similar problem, getting an attorney to represent her
sabrina 1
Jul 2012
#42
Our dad's dads paid the car company, the builder (who got a loan, but his money was on the line),
jtuck004
Jul 2012
#66
I'd like to point out that an under-appreciated genius made a similar suggestion 2 1/2 years ago:
Orrex
Jul 2012
#5
Wow, that was brilliant, Orrex. You were ahead of the game. And it was a very good question at the
sabrina 1
Jul 2012
#8
But the post didn't address the point made by TexasObserver. Is TexasObserver right?
AnotherMcIntosh
Jul 2012
#25
The fair market value of a foreclosed home is often a tiny fraction of its full sale value
Orrex
Jul 2012
#27
But that is not what happens in eminent domain. Properties are not auctioned. There is caselaw on
stevenleser
Jul 2012
#53
You cannot single out someone in a law like that, it would have to apply to all property owners.
stevenleser
Jul 2012
#58
You'd only be applying it to people who vacate properties and don't maintain them.
Orrex
Jul 2012
#59
You are correct, using MERS, the Banks removed any records of ownership from municipal record
sabrina 1
Jul 2012
#21
They could take the banks to court and do what many home-owners are doing now, demand to see
sabrina 1
Jul 2012
#30