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In reply to the discussion: California adopts 'yes means yes' sex-assault rule [View all]candelista
(1,986 posts)73. You are dodging the only important question.
It's the whole shebang: how does someone show consent? Does it require a written contract, an oral contract, behavioral criteria or what? You can say that "yes means yes," but what does the second "yes" mean? How do you say yes? Does someone have to ask, every time, "Can we have sex now?" so that the other person can explicitly say "yes"? Must a contract be filled out, signed and witnessed? Or are behavioral criteria enough? What behavioral criteria?
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I think the point is that it would be problimatic to prosecute both partners for
kelly1mm
Sep 2014
#101
I guess that is the question then. How intoxicated is too intoxicated to be able to consent
kelly1mm
Sep 2014
#105
Again, is it not possible that BOTH people could be incapacitated to the degree
kelly1mm
Sep 2014
#108
As I have pointed out to others, it really comes down to the individual case, and the relevant facts
Ash_F
Sep 2014
#113
Both parties are often drunk. Are they both sexual predators? Are they both victims? nt
kelly1mm
Sep 2014
#102
Don't forget the portable Breathalyzer or other method for testing blood alcohol content. (n/t)
Jim Lane
Sep 2014
#19
Just videotape the entire encounter, you know, for everyone's legal protection ......
kelly1mm
Sep 2014
#103
Sounds like they're trying to legislate no sex after any consumption of alcohol.
Calista241
Sep 2014
#27
because the relationship between married folks is close enough they know their signals.
alp227
Sep 2014
#92
Assemblywoman Bonnie Lowenthal, simply said, “Your guess is as good as mine.”...
JPnoodleman
Sep 2014
#114