The war on the Palestinian olive harvest

[Shaktimaan]

39. you are confused...

I imagine because you failed to read all of the pertinent information.

Parsing the definition out we see some important signifiers. First off, the act has to be "inhuman." The Rome Statute's definition clarified this to mean "a crime against humanity." So right off the bat these examples fail to meet the criteria. Crimes against humanity are things like genocide, systematic rape, murder and so on. Not allowing Palestinians to live in settlements? Not on the list.

Now comes the thing that really kills your argument...

To qualify as apartheid these inhuman acts MUST be "committed for the purpose of establishing and maintaining domination by one racial group of persons over any other racial group of persons and systematically oppressing them." In other words, were the settlements built for the sole purpose of systematically oppressing Palestinians? Of course not. Those settlements were built because the settlers want the land and believe they have a legitimate claim to it. At any rate, settlement construction is about the land, NOT about wanting to dominate the Palestinians. If the settlers had their way, all of the Palestinians would not even be there. If the Palestinians do get oppressed it is out of a desire to claim the land.

Lastly... establishing and maintaining domination by one racial group of persons over any other racial group of persons and systematically oppressing them.

Neither Israelis nor Palestinians are racial groups. In fact, every type of racial group that make up the Palestinian nation is also represented in Israel, where they face no oppression whatsoever and in fact ARE allowed to go live on a settlement if they so choose. This is kind of the key thing about apartheid. I'm surprised to see you ignoring it without even attempting to justify this flaw in your argument.

Apartheid is segregation.

Is it? Since when? Because none of your definitions support that belief.

I wonder why you fail to see the obvious.

Because I understand that specific words have specific meanings. You claim is only obvious if you disregard the meaning of the definition you posted.