Israel/Palestine
In reply to the discussion: We Called It Genocide in Guatemala. Why Not in Gaza Too? [View all]oberliner
(58,724 posts)The term should not be "off limits" because of the genocide committed by the Nazis. The term should certainly be applied where it is appropriate. I think that some people are desirous to apply the term to Israel even though it is not applicable because of the connection/relationship between the term and Nazi Germany. Surely you have read comments expressing sentiments linking the two (i.e. the oppressed have become the oppressors, etc.). I think any reasonable person who does not have an agenda would conclude that the term is not even remotely applicable in the case of Israel with respect to the Palestinians. And I actually would go so far as to suggest that this comparison with Guatemala emphasizes that point. That is to say, that those circumstances were so radically different as to render any comparison preposterous.
I don't think I am going to find agreement with you on this topic and I am happy to move on from it. Personally, I am not sure what the positive outcome would be of agreeing one way or another would be anyway. What would be the next step?