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Lizzie Poppet

(10,164 posts)
7. Of course not. The right to personal self-defense was simply assumed.
Wed Mar 26, 2014, 11:52 AM
Mar 2014

I doubt that any of the Framers would have thought twice about any need to explicitly define and protect that right. They elected to guarantee the right of the people to possess and employ the tools employed in that activity. They included a supporting rationale (use in the militia), but the language most certainly does not serve to assert that this is the only rationale. That the people would use the arms they were guaranteed the right to possess in personal self-defense would have been taken as a given.

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