Religion
In reply to the discussion: HR 535 – Year of the Bible Resolution (billboard) [View all]deacon_sephiroth
(731 posts)your arguement (time and time and tiem again) is that slavery existed, and that seems to be all you are saying.
SURPRISE! No one is arguing that, as it would be complete lunacy to do so.
Good, now that's out of the way,
Everyone else is arguing this:
The bible seems to endorse slavery, and even if we agree that it does not DIRECTLY endorse slavery it certainly does not condemn it. You've already stated yourself many times that it does not, so we're clear here and can move on again.
So what everyone is saying is THIS: Here's your bible, the moral guidebook to all humanity inspired by it's one and only creator/judge/jury/exicutioner. It's the only written set of instructions God's ever left us or ever will by the looks of it. So why DOESN'T it have a problem with slavery? Yes, people were doing it, in some ways people still are, and may yet in the future. It's clearly something humans are capable of, if not sickeningly predisposed to. So if the book is so wise, and so holy, and so right, then why omit this bit, it seems like a gimme.
Posting Aristotle, or any other regular old human author randomly talking about slavery doesn't prove anything exept for "slavery existed back then" something NO ONE IS ARGUEING, as we've established. Also it weakens your position by comparing your text, which is supposed to be derived from SUPREME MORAL AUTHORITY to other normal works of literature. That just begs the question, of "so what's the difference between the bible and Harry Potter?"
Let's review shall we (to avoid confusion)
1) - Slavery DID exist in biblical times
2) - The Bible does not condemn the practise
3) - The Bible is God's moral handbook
4) - God is perfectly fine with slavery?