Welcome to DU!
The truly grassroots left-of-center political community where regular people, not algorithms, drive the discussions and set the standards.
Join the community:
Create a free account
Support DU (and get rid of ads!):
Become a Star Member
Latest Breaking News
Editorials & Other Articles
General Discussion
The DU Lounge
All Forums
Issue Forums
Culture Forums
Alliance Forums
Region Forums
Support Forums
Help & Search
Science
In reply to the discussion: If you're having math problems, I feel bad for you, son... [View all]tama
(9,137 posts)33. You're on an interesting track
Consider also the fundamental theorem of arithmetics: "any integer greater than 1 can be written as a unique product (up to ordering of the factors) of prime numbers." http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_arithmetic
Matti Pitkänen has developed the notion of infinite primes:
http://tgd.wippiespace.com/public_html/pdfpool/infpc.pdf
Second chapter of the paper begins with:
2 Infinite primes, integers, and rationals
The definition of the infinite integers and rationals is a straightforward procedure and structurally similar to a repeated second quantization of a super-symmetric quantum field theory but including also the number theoretic counterparts of bound states.
2.1 The first level of hierarchy
In the following the concept of infinite prime is developed gradually by stepwise procedure rather than giving directly the basic definitions. The hope is that the development of the concept in the same manner as it actually occurred would make it easier to understand it.
Step 1
One could try to define infinite primes P by starting from the basic idea in the proof of Euclid for the existence of infinite number of primes. Take the product of all finite primes and add 1 to get a new prime:
P =1+X ,
Edit history
Please sign in to view edit histories.
Recommendations
0 members have recommended this reply (displayed in chronological order):
44 replies
= new reply since forum marked as read
Highlight:
NoneDon't highlight anything
5 newestHighlight 5 most recent replies
RecommendedHighlight replies with 5 or more recommendations
Question for math teacher - Please. At the end of the year I have 100,000 Pesos...
wake.up.america
Feb 2013
#43
A set of numbers is countable if it has the same cardinality as some subset of the natural numbers.
Jim__
Mar 2012
#4
"there do not exist 2 integers, say n and m, such that pi can be written as n/m"
napoleon_in_rags
Mar 2012
#5
"... you know Z plus all integers of infinite length would probably have the same cardinality as R."
Jim__
Mar 2012
#7
As simply as it can be put, your statement is in direct contradiction to a Zermelo-Fraenkel axiom.
Jim__
Mar 2012
#12
Yeah, it guarantees the size N is infinite, not that any number in N is infinite.
napoleon_in_rags
Apr 2012
#20
I'm just incredibly glad to hear these people seeing the holes in set theory.
napoleon_in_rags
Apr 2012
#39