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How Does Sanders Only Have 46% of Delegates, But Only 42% of Popular Vote? [View all]
On DU, there is a lot of discussion about how the Democratic nomination is rigged and undemocratic and tilted toward Hillary. This would seem to make sense, since Hillary is the establishment candidate, thus you would expect Bernie to be bleeding delegates to her similar to the stunts being pulled against Trump in the Republican primary. Yet, it appears that Bernie has only 42 percent of the popular vote:
http://www.thegreenpapers.com/P16/D
Yet, he has 46 percent of the delegates:
http://projects.fivethirtyeight.com/election-2016/delegate-targets/democrats/
This would appear to be the exact opposite of what you would expect. Shouldn't the numbers be reversed?
13 replies
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