The White House has nothing to lose from outright denial of influence in the Morales incident if

[ljm2002]

11. "I don't see any convincing reporting"...

"that any country truly denied Morales passage."

http://www.washingtonpost.com/blogs/worldviews/wp/2013/07/03/evo-morales-controversial-flight-over-europe-minute-by-heavily-disputed-minute/

“There was contradictory information about the identity of the passengers aboard one or two aircraft, because there was also a doubt about the number of planes that wanted to fly over France,” French President Francois Hollande said in Germany, apparently allowing the possibility that the flight had been denied permission. “As soon as I knew that it was the plane of Bolivia’s president, I immediately gave my authorization for the overflight.”

(emphasis mine)

Note the Washington Post admits Hollande is "allowing the possibility that the flight had been denied permission". However, I would say he is outright admitting it, given that in his very next statement he says that he, personally, authorized the overflight. If he had to authorize it, that means it was not authorized to begin with. We know that the flight of any head of state will have filed a flight plan. This one included flying over France. France's President became personally involved in the flight of this one airplane. Are you seriously trying to argue that President Hollande is lying here? Or that his statements do not verify that overflight was denied for some period of time?