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In reply to the discussion: States are incrementally banning Sharia Law. What about Orthodox Jewish law? [View all]jberryhill
(62,444 posts)4. It's worse than illogical
If I sell pork falsely labeled as "Halal" in Kansas, it is now legal for me to do so.
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States are incrementally banning Sharia Law. What about Orthodox Jewish law? [View all]
no_hypocrisy
May 2012
OP
Not really, because you'd need to label the pork as something other than pork
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#7
Because you have to say it is not pork. Does the law allow one to sell beef as lamb? No.
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#10
And what of the jurisdictions with halal laws, which you claim do not exist?
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#35
Gee councilor surly, I said in my post I do not know what that law says. I said you might be right
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#47
The fraudulent beef example is better for it lacks the I assume unintended implication
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#38
Are they really applying Sharia law or just trying to come up with a definition?
treestar
May 2012
#22
The point is that that's why they aren't being targetted by legislation. (nt)
Posteritatis
May 2012
#66
All religious law should be banned; Canon Law, Rabbinical Courts, and Sharia Law
FarCenter
May 2012
#12
Unless kosher is a defined term in the commercial code of the state, it is unenforceable.
FarCenter
May 2012
#20
When the determination of "fraud" depends on a determination of religious law
jberryhill
May 2012
#51
Sticking strictly to your example, define "kosher" for the purposes of the court.
cleanhippie
May 2012
#28
No, the question will be whether the defendant and the plaintiff are working from the same
cleanhippie
May 2012
#33
The burden will be on you to prove that I did not fulfill my part of the contract.
cleanhippie
May 2012
#57
You are now moving the goalposts. Stop adding conditions to try and meet your case.
cleanhippie
May 2012
#39