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In reply to the discussion: States are incrementally banning Sharia Law. What about Orthodox Jewish law? [View all]treestar
(82,383 posts)52. But it's still only applying that to a fact question within American law
Kosher pork is a product. I'm trying to discern the difference here. It's not forcing Jewish or Sharia law on Americans in that context. It's like choosing a jurisdiction in a contract.
The legislatures doing the banning act like we are somehow being forced to use the Sharia law and enforce it when it didn't pass our legislatures. Of course it would be impossible to explain that to those behind these laws. But what of such a contract - if the Jewish law is banned, then it takes away from freedom of contract. I have to buy pork that is pork without religious consideration, even if we both agree to it by contract? That would seem to run afoul of most states' first amendments.
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States are incrementally banning Sharia Law. What about Orthodox Jewish law? [View all]
no_hypocrisy
May 2012
OP
Not really, because you'd need to label the pork as something other than pork
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#7
Because you have to say it is not pork. Does the law allow one to sell beef as lamb? No.
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#10
And what of the jurisdictions with halal laws, which you claim do not exist?
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#35
Gee councilor surly, I said in my post I do not know what that law says. I said you might be right
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#47
The fraudulent beef example is better for it lacks the I assume unintended implication
Bluenorthwest
May 2012
#38
Are they really applying Sharia law or just trying to come up with a definition?
treestar
May 2012
#22
The point is that that's why they aren't being targetted by legislation. (nt)
Posteritatis
May 2012
#66
All religious law should be banned; Canon Law, Rabbinical Courts, and Sharia Law
FarCenter
May 2012
#12
Unless kosher is a defined term in the commercial code of the state, it is unenforceable.
FarCenter
May 2012
#20
When the determination of "fraud" depends on a determination of religious law
jberryhill
May 2012
#51
Sticking strictly to your example, define "kosher" for the purposes of the court.
cleanhippie
May 2012
#28
No, the question will be whether the defendant and the plaintiff are working from the same
cleanhippie
May 2012
#33
The burden will be on you to prove that I did not fulfill my part of the contract.
cleanhippie
May 2012
#57
You are now moving the goalposts. Stop adding conditions to try and meet your case.
cleanhippie
May 2012
#39